Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 05:18 Page 103 of 112 Attempt #2069 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 511 / 560 Not answered At a continuity-of-care review: a 61-year-old man is being assessed for average-risk colorectal cancer screening; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Delay screening until age 60 if asymptomatic B. Perform annual CT abdomen as first-line screening C. Use CEA blood testing as the primary screening method D. Start colorectal cancer screening at age 45 with an approved strategy E. Screen only if iron-deficiency anemia develops Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Start colorectal cancer screening at age 45 with an approved strategy. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Colorectal Cancer Screening Recommendation (2021); ACS Colorectal Cancer Screening Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 512 / 560 Not answered During an annual wellness examination: a 52-year-old woman is being assessed for breast cancer screening interval; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Replace mammography with annual breast MRI in average risk B. Offer biennial mammography for women aged 40-74 at average risk C. Stop screening at age 50 regardless of risk D. Start annual mammography at age 25 for all women E. Screen only after a breast lump appears Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Offer biennial mammography for women aged 40-74 at average risk. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Breast Cancer Screening Recommendation (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 513 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care visit: a 46-year-old woman is being assessed for cervical cancer screening; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Pap smear every 6 months indefinitely B. No screening needed after sexual debut C. Annual pelvic ultrasound replaces cervical screening D. Start cervical screening only after age 50 E. For ages 30-65, perform primary HPV testing every 5 years (or approved alternatives) Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: For ages 30-65, perform primary HPV testing every 5 years (or approved alternatives). This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPSTF Cervical Cancer Screening Recommendation (2018, reaffirmed) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 514 / 560 Not answered During primary-care follow-up: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for primary prevention statin indication; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Avoid statins if LDL is above 190 mg/dL B. Use triglycerides alone to decide statin therapy C. Delay lipid treatment until symptomatic cardiovascular disease appears D. Prescribe high-intensity statin to all adults over 30 E. Estimate 10-year ASCVD risk and consider moderate-intensity statin when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Estimate 10-year ASCVD risk and consider moderate-intensity statin when indicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ACC/AHA Cholesterol Guideline (2018 with updates) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 515 / 560 Not answered In a routine family medicine clinic encounter: a 57-year-old man is being assessed for initial drug therapy in hypertension with diabetes; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use loop diuretic as first-line monotherapy in all patients B. Prefer chronic clonidine monotherapy as first-line approach C. Avoid blood pressure medication until BP exceeds 180/110 D. Start antihypertensive therapy and include ACE inhibitor or ARB when albuminuria is present E. Treat only with lifestyle changes despite persistent stage 2 hypertension Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Start antihypertensive therapy and include ACE inhibitor or ARB when albuminuria is present. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ACC/AHA Hypertension Guideline (2017); ADA Standards of Care Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 103 of 112 Next → »