Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:24 Page 104 of 112 Attempt #1989 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 516 / 560 Not answered At a chronic disease review appointment: a 47-year-old woman is being assessed for initial therapy in type 2 diabetes; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Treat only after A1c exceeds 12% B. Use metformin as first-line therapy unless contraindicated C. Start insulin in every newly diagnosed patient D. Use sulfonylurea first in all overweight patients E. Avoid lifestyle intervention at diagnosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Use metformin as first-line therapy unless contraindicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 517 / 560 Not answered During a same-day outpatient consultation: a 68-year-old man is being assessed for glycemic target; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Ignore A1c and rely only on fasting glucose B. Target A1c <5% for all patients C. Use one fixed A1c target regardless of frailty or comorbidity D. For many nonpregnant adults, target A1c around <7% with individualized goals E. Stop A1c monitoring after diagnosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: For many nonpregnant adults, target A1c around <7% with individualized goals. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 518 / 560 Not answered In a community health center follow-up: a 35-year-old woman is being assessed for diabetic kidney protection; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Replace BP control with high-protein diet B. Use NSAIDs long-term to protect renal function C. Avoid RAAS blockade when albuminuria is present D. Delay kidney-protective therapy until dialysis is required E. Use ACE inhibitor or ARB in diabetes with hypertension and albuminuria Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Use ACE inhibitor or ARB in diabetes with hypertension and albuminuria. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; ADA Standards of Care Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 519 / 560 Not answered At a continuity-of-care review: a 61-year-old man is being assessed for persistent asthma controller; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use antibiotics as maintenance therapy B. Start chronic oral steroid in all mild cases C. Initiate inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy for persistent asthma D. Use short-acting beta agonist alone as long-term controller E. Avoid spirometry in asthma follow-up Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Initiate inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy for persistent asthma. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: GINA Global Strategy for Asthma Management (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 520 / 560 Not answered During an annual wellness examination: a 44-year-old woman is being assessed for copd exacerbation outpatient treatment; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use long-term antibiotics for every COPD visit B. Delay treatment until sputum culture is finalized in all cases C. Use diuretics as primary exacerbation treatment D. Stop all inhalers during exacerbation E. Treat moderate exacerbation with bronchodilators, short steroid course, and antibiotics when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Treat moderate exacerbation with bronchodilators, short steroid course, and antibiotics when indicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: GOLD COPD Report (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 104 of 112 Next → »