Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 03:31 Page 105 of 112 Attempt #1867 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 521 / 560 Not answered At a preventive-care visit: a 52-year-old man is being assessed for most effective cessation strategy; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Delay intervention until smoking-related disease appears B. Use antibiotics to reduce craving C. Recommend abrupt cessation without support as the only strategy D. Combine behavioral counseling with first-line pharmacotherapy such as varenicline or NRT E. Use benzodiazepines as first-line cessation medication Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Combine behavioral counseling with first-line pharmacotherapy such as varenicline or NRT. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: USPHS Treating Tobacco Use and Dependence Guideline; Cochrane Tobacco Cessation Reviews Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 522 / 560 Not answered During primary-care follow-up: a 39-year-old woman is being assessed for initial obesity management; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use thyroid hormone for routine weight loss B. Recommend fasting-only plan without monitoring C. Start bariatric surgery in all overweight patients D. Set a structured lifestyle plan targeting 5-10% weight loss with follow-up E. Avoid discussing weight unless BMI exceeds 45 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Set a structured lifestyle plan targeting 5-10% weight loss with follow-up. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: AACE/ACE Obesity Clinical Practice Guidelines; USPSTF Behavioral Weight Loss Interventions Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 523 / 560 Not answered In a routine family medicine clinic encounter: a 57-year-old man is being assessed for primary hypothyroidism treatment; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Treat only if free T4 becomes undetectable B. Use iodine contrast to normalize TSH C. Use liothyronine monotherapy in all patients D. Start beta blocker as definitive treatment E. Treat overt primary hypothyroidism with levothyroxine and monitor TSH Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Treat overt primary hypothyroidism with levothyroxine and monitor TSH. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: American Thyroid Association Hypothyroidism Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 524 / 560 Not answered At a chronic disease review appointment: a 47-year-old woman is being assessed for iron deficiency workup; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Confirm iron deficiency and investigate bleeding source based on risk profile B. Treat with transfusion alone in all mild anemia C. Start chronic B12 injections for isolated iron deficiency D. Ignore ferritin and use MCV alone E. Assume dietary deficiency without evaluation in older adults Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Confirm iron deficiency and investigate bleeding source based on risk profile. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: BSG Guideline for Management of Iron Deficiency Anaemia; ACP guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 525 / 560 Not answered During a same-day outpatient consultation: a 68-year-old man is being assessed for alarm features management; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Delay evaluation for one year B. Reassure without investigation in progressive dysphagia C. Arrange early upper endoscopy when alarm features are present D. Use abdominal X-ray as definitive test E. Treat all alarm-feature dyspepsia with antacids only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Arrange early upper endoscopy when alarm features are present. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ACG/CAG Dyspepsia Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 105 of 112 Next → »