Family Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 09:07 Page 99 of 112 Attempt #2491 Overall: 0 / 560 questions answered Question 491 / 560 Not answered In a routine family medicine clinic encounter: a 57-year-old man is being assessed for initial therapy in type 2 diabetes; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use metformin as first-line therapy unless contraindicated B. Use sulfonylurea first in all overweight patients C. Treat only after A1c exceeds 12% D. Avoid lifestyle intervention at diagnosis E. Start insulin in every newly diagnosed patient Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Use metformin as first-line therapy unless contraindicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 492 / 560 Not answered At a chronic disease review appointment: a 47-year-old woman is being assessed for glycemic target; What is the most appropriate next step? A. For many nonpregnant adults, target A1c around <7% with individualized goals B. Stop A1c monitoring after diagnosis C. Use one fixed A1c target regardless of frailty or comorbidity D. Ignore A1c and rely only on fasting glucose E. Target A1c <5% for all patients Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: For many nonpregnant adults, target A1c around <7% with individualized goals. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 493 / 560 Not answered During a same-day outpatient consultation: a 68-year-old man is being assessed for diabetic kidney protection; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Replace BP control with high-protein diet B. Use ACE inhibitor or ARB in diabetes with hypertension and albuminuria C. Delay kidney-protective therapy until dialysis is required D. Use NSAIDs long-term to protect renal function E. Avoid RAAS blockade when albuminuria is present Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Use ACE inhibitor or ARB in diabetes with hypertension and albuminuria. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; ADA Standards of Care Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 494 / 560 Not answered In a community health center follow-up: a 35-year-old woman is being assessed for persistent asthma controller; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Initiate inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy for persistent asthma B. Use antibiotics as maintenance therapy C. Avoid spirometry in asthma follow-up D. Use short-acting beta agonist alone as long-term controller E. Start chronic oral steroid in all mild cases Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Initiate inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy for persistent asthma. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: GINA Global Strategy for Asthma Management (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 495 / 560 Not answered At a continuity-of-care review: a 61-year-old man is being assessed for copd exacerbation outpatient treatment; What is the most appropriate next step? A. Use long-term antibiotics for every COPD visit B. Delay treatment until sputum culture is finalized in all cases C. Use diuretics as primary exacerbation treatment D. Treat moderate exacerbation with bronchodilators, short steroid course, and antibiotics when indicated E. Stop all inhalers during exacerbation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Treat moderate exacerbation with bronchodilators, short steroid course, and antibiotics when indicated. This aligns with current family medicine standards and should be tailored to patient context, comorbidities, risk profile, and shared decision-making. Reference: GOLD COPD Report (2024) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 99 of 112 Next → »