Allergy & Immunology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:19 Page 14 of 41 Attempt #2407 Overall: 0 / 201 questions answered Question 66 / 201 Not answered During ward handover: a 58-year-old woman presents with transient pruritic wheals. Relevant risk context includes food trigger pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Chronic spontaneous urticaria B. Hereditary angioedema C. Allergic rhinitis D. Drug hypersensitivity reaction E. Primary antibody deficiency suspicion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of transient pruritic wheals with risk factors such as food trigger pattern is most consistent with Primary antibody deficiency suspicion. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Allergy & Immunology. Reference: GINA Asthma Strategy; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 67 / 201 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 69-year-old man has wheeze with hypotension after allergen exposure with risk profile of food trigger pattern. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Asthma controller optimization with trigger control B. Stepwise antihistamine optimization C. Immediate intramuscular epinephrine D. Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema E. Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: ARIA Rhinitis Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 68 / 201 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 44-year-old woman is evaluated for recurrent sinopulmonary infections in the context of immune deficiency family history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Skin-prick testing when appropriate B. Specific IgE testing in context C. Immunoglobulin level assessment D. Detailed trigger-focused allergy history E. Complement profile including C4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Complement profile including C4 is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: GINA Asthma Strategy; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 69 / 201 Not answered During ward handover: a 49-year-old man has reaction after new medication with risk profile of family allergy history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Asthma controller optimization with trigger control B. Stepwise antihistamine optimization C. Emergency action plan and patient education D. Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control E. Immediate intramuscular epinephrine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Asthma controller optimization with trigger control is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: ARIA Rhinitis Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 70 / 201 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 45-year-old man has transient pruritic wheals with risk profile of food trigger pattern. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Emergency action plan and patient education B. Asthma controller optimization with trigger control C. Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control D. Immediate intramuscular epinephrine E. Stepwise antihistamine optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: EAACI Position Papers; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 14 of 41 Next → »