Allergy & Immunology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 23:52 Page 38 of 41 Attempt #1405 Overall: 0 / 201 questions answered Question 186 / 201 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 40-year-old woman has sneezing and nasal pruritus with seasonal pattern with risk profile of immune deficiency family history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Immediate intramuscular epinephrine B. Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema C. Emergency action plan and patient education D. Asthma controller optimization with trigger control E. Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Intranasal corticosteroid-based rhinitis control is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: GINA Asthma Strategy; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 187 / 201 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 37-year-old man presents with transient pruritic wheals. Relevant risk context includes immune deficiency family history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary antibody deficiency suspicion B. Drug hypersensitivity reaction C. Anaphylaxis D. Chronic spontaneous urticaria E. Allergic rhinitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of transient pruritic wheals with risk factors such as immune deficiency family history is most consistent with Chronic spontaneous urticaria. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Allergy & Immunology. Reference: GINA Asthma Strategy; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 188 / 201 Not answered During ward handover: a 74-year-old woman is evaluated for recurrent swelling without urticaria in the context of food trigger pattern. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Pulmonary function testing B. Specific IgE testing in context C. Immunoglobulin level assessment D. Complement profile including C4 E. Detailed trigger-focused allergy history Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Immunoglobulin level assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: WAO Anaphylaxis Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 189 / 201 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 36-year-old woman has wheeze with hypotension after allergen exposure with risk profile of family allergy history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Stepwise antihistamine optimization B. Immediate intramuscular epinephrine C. Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema D. Emergency action plan and patient education E. Asthma controller optimization with trigger control Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Targeted therapy for bradykinin-mediated angioedema is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Allergy & Immunology. Reference: ARIA Rhinitis Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 190 / 201 Not answered During ward handover: a 71-year-old man presents with transient pruritic wheals. Relevant risk context includes family allergy history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary antibody deficiency suspicion B. Hereditary angioedema C. Chronic spontaneous urticaria D. Drug hypersensitivity reaction E. Anaphylaxis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of transient pruritic wheals with risk factors such as family allergy history is most consistent with Chronic spontaneous urticaria. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Allergy & Immunology. Reference: EAACI Position Papers; Allergy & Immunology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 38 of 41 Next → »