Gastroenterology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:20 Page 10 of 58 Attempt #1959 Overall: 0 / 286 questions answered Question 46 / 286 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 36-year-old man has bloody diarrhea, urgency, and continuous inflammation from rectum proximally on colonoscopy. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Crohn disease with skip lesions B. Ischemic colitis only C. Diverticulitis D. Cholera E. Ulcerative colitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Gastroenterology] Continuous mucosal inflammation beginning at the rectum is typical of ulcerative colitis. Reference: ECCO/ACG Inflammatory Bowel Disease Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 47 / 286 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 23-year-old woman has chronic diarrhea, weight loss, iron deficiency, and positive tissue transglutaminase IgA. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Ulcerative colitis proven B. Pancreatic cancer C. Lactose tolerance D. Celiac disease E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Gastroenterology] Positive tTG-IgA with malabsorptive symptoms supports celiac disease, usually confirmed with duodenal biopsy while on gluten. Reference: ACG Celiac Disease Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 48 / 286 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A patient with cirrhosis develops ascites and fever. Diagnostic paracentesis shows PMN count 320 cells/mm3. What is the diagnosis? A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Acute appendicitis ruled out by ascites C. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis D. Nephrotic syndrome only E. Uncomplicated ascites Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Gastroenterology] Ascitic fluid PMN count >=250 cells/mm3 is diagnostic of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in cirrhosis. Reference: AASLD Ascites and SBP Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 49 / 286 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 47-year-old man has HBsAg positive for 8 months. What does this indicate? A. Resolved hepatitis A B. Chronic hepatitis B infection C. Acute hepatitis C only D. Vaccine immunity only E. False positive always Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Gastroenterology] HBsAg persisting for more than 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B infection. Reference: AASLD Hepatitis B Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 50 / 286 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 54-year-old man has chronic heartburn with alarm dysphagia and weight loss. What is the best next step? A. Upper GI endoscopy B. Empirical antacid only for 1 year C. Colonoscopy first D. H. pylori breath test only E. Reassurance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Gastroenterology] GERD symptoms with alarm features such as dysphagia or weight loss require endoscopy. Reference: ACG GERD Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 10 of 58 Next → »