Pulmonology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 10:06 Page 16 of 57 Attempt #2554 Overall: 0 / 285 questions answered Question 76 / 285 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 24-year-old woman has episodic wheeze, cough at night, and reversible airflow obstruction after salbutamol. What is the best diagnosis? A. COPD B. Bronchiectasis C. Asthma D. Pulmonary embolism E. Pneumothorax Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Pulmonology] Variable respiratory symptoms plus reversible expiratory airflow limitation support asthma. Reference: GINA Global Strategy for Asthma Management and Prevention 2025/2026. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 77 / 285 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 67-year-old heavy smoker has chronic dyspnea and post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC 0.62. What is the diagnosis? A. Restrictive lung disease B. Asthma excluded by smoking alone C. Pulmonary edema D. COPD E. Normal spirometry Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Pulmonology] Persistent post-bronchodilator airflow obstruction confirms COPD in an appropriate exposure history. Reference: GOLD COPD Report 2026. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 78 / 285 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 33-year-old woman has sudden pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, and recent long-haul flight. What is the best initial risk assessment tool? A. Serum calcium only B. Peak flow diary C. Sputum culture only D. Skin prick test E. Clinical pretest probability such as Wells score Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Pulmonology] Suspected pulmonary embolism should be assessed using clinical pretest probability to guide D-dimer and imaging. Reference: ESC Pulmonary Embolism Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 79 / 285 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 70-year-old man with COPD has increased dyspnea, sputum volume, and sputum purulence. What does this suggest? A. Acute COPD exacerbation where bronchodilators and selected antibiotics/steroids may be needed B. Stable COPD only C. Acute asthma excluded by age D. Lung cancer diagnosis without imaging E. Tuberculosis proven Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Pulmonology] The cardinal symptoms of COPD exacerbation include increased dyspnea, sputum volume, and purulence; treatment depends on severity. Reference: GOLD COPD Report 2026. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 80 / 285 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 28-year-old has spontaneous unilateral pleuritic pain and absent breath sounds with hyperresonance. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Pleural effusion B. Pneumothorax C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Lobar pneumonia E. Obesity hypoventilation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Pulmonology] Acute pleuritic pain with unilateral absent breath sounds and hyperresonance suggests pneumothorax. Reference: British Thoracic Society Pleural Disease Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 16 of 57 Next → »