Allergy Specialist Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 22:45 Page 4 of 11 Attempt #1234 Overall: 0 / 53 questions answered Question 16 / 53 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A patient has recurrent swelling of lips and abdomen without urticaria, low C4, and poor response to antihistamines. What is likely? A. Histamine-mediated urticaria only B. Anaphylaxis from peanuts C. Hereditary angioedema D. Contact dermatitis E. Cellulitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Allergy & Immunology] Recurrent angioedema without urticaria plus low C4 suggests bradykinin-mediated hereditary angioedema. Reference: WAO/EAACI Hereditary Angioedema Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 17 / 53 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A child develops recurrent infections with absent tonsils and very low immunoglobulins. What immune defect is suggested? A. Complement C1 inhibitor deficiency B. Humoral immunodeficiency such as X-linked agammaglobulinemia C. Atopic dermatitis only D. Food intolerance E. Normal childhood infection pattern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Allergy & Immunology] Absent lymphoid tissue and very low immunoglobulins suggest B-cell/humoral immunodeficiency. Reference: ESID/AAAAI Primary Immunodeficiency Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 18 / 53 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A patient has immediate hives and bronchospasm after penicillin, but penicillin is essential for neurosyphilis. What is the best approach? A. Allergy evaluation and desensitization if true allergy confirmed B. Give penicillin without precautions C. Avoid all antibiotics forever D. Use topical steroid E. Delay treatment indefinitely Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Allergy & Immunology] When penicillin is essential and IgE-mediated allergy is likely, specialist-supervised desensitization is appropriate. Reference: CDC STI Treatment Guidelines; AAAAI Drug Allergy Practice Parameter. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 19 / 53 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A 55-year-old man develops wheeze, urticaria, and hypotension after peanut exposure. What is the first treatment? A. Oral antihistamine B. IV antibiotics C. CT chest D. Observation only E. IM epinephrine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Allergy & Immunology] Anaphylaxis with respiratory and cardiovascular involvement requires immediate intramuscular epinephrine. Reference: World Allergy Organization Anaphylaxis Guidance 2020/2024 update. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 20 / 53 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A patient has acute urticaria without airway, breathing, circulation, or GI compromise. What is first-line symptomatic therapy? (Variant 1994) A. IM epinephrine for every isolated wheal B. Long-term oral steroid for all C. Antibiotic D. Second-generation H1 antihistamine E. Warfarin Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Allergy & Immunology] Acute urticaria without anaphylaxis is treated with non-sedating H1 antihistamines. Reference: EAACI/GA2LEN/EuroGuiDerm/APAAACI Urticaria Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 4 of 11 Next → »