Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 10:13 Page 12 of 49 Attempt #2600 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 56 / 244 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 81-year-old man has calf pain on exertion relieved by rest with risk profile of hyperlipidemia. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Aneurysm surveillance or intervention by threshold B. Revascularization planning when indicated C. Emergency vascular referral D. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated E. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 57 / 244 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 68-year-old woman is evaluated for calf pain on exertion relieved by rest in the context of atrial fibrillation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex venous ultrasound B. Carotid duplex imaging C. Ankle-brachial index D. Duplex arterial ultrasound E. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ankle-brachial index is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 58 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 33-year-old woman presents with painful pale pulseless cold limb. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Peripheral arterial disease claudication B. Symptomatic carotid stenosis C. Critical limb-threatening ischemia D. Deep venous thrombosis E. Acute limb ischemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of painful pale pulseless cold limb with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Critical limb-threatening ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 59 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 53-year-old man is evaluated for rest pain with tissue loss in the context of hypertension. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex arterial ultrasound B. Duplex venous ultrasound C. CT angiography D. Ankle-brachial index E. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Duplex venous ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: NICE VTE Guidance; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 60 / 244 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 68-year-old woman is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling and pain in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex arterial ultrasound B. Ankle-brachial index C. CT angiography D. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler E. Duplex venous ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: CT angiography is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 12 of 49 Next → »