Vascular Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:21 Page 41 of 49 Attempt #1970 Overall: 0 / 244 questions answered Question 201 / 244 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 37-year-old man presents with unilateral leg swelling and pain. Relevant risk context includes hyperlipidemia. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Peripheral arterial disease claudication B. Critical limb-threatening ischemia C. Deep venous thrombosis D. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern E. Symptomatic carotid stenosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of unilateral leg swelling and pain with risk factors such as hyperlipidemia is most consistent with Peripheral arterial disease claudication. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 202 / 244 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 54-year-old man presents with calf pain on exertion relieved by rest. Relevant risk context includes advanced age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern B. Acute limb ischemia C. Deep venous thrombosis D. Peripheral arterial disease claudication E. Symptomatic carotid stenosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of calf pain on exertion relieved by rest with risk factors such as advanced age is most consistent with Acute limb ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: SVS Guidelines; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 203 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 72-year-old woman is evaluated for unilateral leg swelling and pain in the context of smoking. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Duplex venous ultrasound B. CT angiography C. Ankle-brachial index D. Urgent vascular examination with Doppler E. Carotid duplex imaging Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Urgent vascular examination with Doppler is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 204 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 57-year-old man presents with pulsatile abdominal mass. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute limb ischemia B. Critical limb-threatening ischemia C. Deep venous thrombosis D. Abdominal aortic aneurysm concern E. Peripheral arterial disease claudication Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of pulsatile abdominal mass with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Critical limb-threatening ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Vascular Surgery. Reference: ESVS Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 205 / 244 Not answered During morning rounds: a 25-year-old woman has pulsatile abdominal mass with risk profile of hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Immediate anticoagulation when not contraindicated B. Emergency vascular referral C. Revascularization planning when indicated D. Risk-factor modification and antiplatelet therapy E. Structured limb salvage pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Emergency vascular referral is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Vascular Surgery. Reference: AHA/ACC PAD Guideline; Vascular Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 41 of 49 Next → »