Obstetrics & Gynecology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 23:43 Page 37 of 40 Attempt #1388 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 181 / 200 Not answered During morning rounds: a 42-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea with unilateral pelvic pain. Relevant risk context includes first pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Postpartum hemorrhage B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Placenta previa E. HELLP syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of amenorrhea with unilateral pelvic pain with risk factors such as first pregnancy is most consistent with Ectopic pregnancy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: ACOG Practice Bulletins; Obstetrics & Gynecology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 182 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 32-year-old woman presents with heavy bleeding after delivery. Relevant risk context includes first pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Placenta previa B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Severe preeclampsia E. Postpartum hemorrhage Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of heavy bleeding after delivery with risk factors such as first pregnancy is most consistent with Severe preeclampsia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: RCOG Green-top Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 183 / 200 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 20-year-old woman has cervical motion tenderness with fever with risk profile of prior ectopic pregnancy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Guideline-concordant PID antimicrobial regimen B. Rh prophylaxis when indicated C. Urgent ectopic pregnancy pathway D. Hemorrhage protocol with uterotonic therapy E. Magnesium sulfate and blood pressure control when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Magnesium sulfate and blood pressure control when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: NICE Ectopic Pregnancy and Miscarriage Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 184 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 32-year-old woman presents with heavy bleeding after delivery. Relevant risk context includes placental disease history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. HELLP syndrome B. Placenta previa C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Severe preeclampsia E. Pelvic inflammatory disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of heavy bleeding after delivery with risk factors such as placental disease history is most consistent with Placenta previa. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: NICE Ectopic Pregnancy and Miscarriage Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 185 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 34-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea with unilateral pelvic pain. Relevant risk context includes placental disease history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Placenta previa C. HELLP syndrome D. Pelvic inflammatory disease E. Severe preeclampsia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of amenorrhea with unilateral pelvic pain with risk factors such as placental disease history is most consistent with Placenta previa. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Obstetrics & Gynecology. Reference: RCOG Green-top Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 37 of 40 Next → »