Intensive Care Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 07:14 Page 13 of 40 Attempt #2275 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 61 / 200 Not answered During morning rounds: a 74-year-old woman presents with high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia. Relevant risk context includes recent severe infection. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Septic shock B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome C. Ventilator-associated pneumonia concern D. Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU E. Cardiac tamponade after trauma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia with risk factors such as recent severe infection is most consistent with Cardiac tamponade after trauma. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Intensive Care. Reference: ATLS and trauma critical care guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 62 / 200 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 65-year-old man is evaluated for worsening renal and hepatic function in the context of major trauma. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lactate and perfusion trend B. Arterial blood gas C. Hemodynamic responsiveness assessment D. Bedside ultrasound E. Microbiologic cultures Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Bedside ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Intensive Care. Reference: SCCM Critical Care Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 63 / 200 Not answered During morning rounds: a 43-year-old woman has worsening renal and hepatic function with risk profile of prolonged ventilation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy B. Lung-protective ventilation strategy C. Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA D. Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated E. Early sepsis bundle with source control Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: SCCM Critical Care Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 64 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 29-year-old woman has high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia with risk profile of high illness severity. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Vasopressor support after fluid optimization B. Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated C. Lung-protective ventilation strategy D. Early sepsis bundle with source control E. Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: ATLS and trauma critical care guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 65 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 42-year-old man has new fever on mechanical ventilation with risk profile of high illness severity. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis bundle with source control B. Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated C. Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy D. Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA E. Lung-protective ventilation strategy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: SCCM Critical Care Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 13 of 40 Next → »