Intensive Care Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:15 Page 28 of 40 Attempt #2373 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 136 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 79-year-old woman has high anion gap acidosis with ketonemia with risk profile of recent severe infection. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Lung-protective ventilation strategy B. Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy C. Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA D. Vasopressor support after fluid optimization E. Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 137 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 67-year-old woman is evaluated for hypotension with distended neck veins and muffled heart sounds in the context of prolonged ventilation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lactate and perfusion trend B. Ventilator mechanics review C. Hemodynamic responsiveness assessment D. Bedside ultrasound E. Microbiologic cultures Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Lactate and perfusion trend is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Intensive Care. Reference: ATLS and trauma critical care guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 138 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 55-year-old woman has refractory hypoxemia with bilateral infiltrates with risk profile of recent severe infection. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis bundle with source control B. Vasopressor support after fluid optimization C. Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated D. Daily sedation and delirium minimization strategy E. Lung-protective ventilation strategy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Lung-protective ventilation strategy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: SCCM Critical Care Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 139 / 200 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 82-year-old man has refractory hypoxemia with bilateral infiltrates with risk profile of prolonged ventilation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Vasopressor support after fluid optimization B. Lung-protective ventilation strategy C. Early sepsis bundle with source control D. Urgent decompression for tamponade when indicated E. Insulin-fluid-electrolyte protocol in DKA Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Early sepsis bundle with source control is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Intensive Care. Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 140 / 200 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 48-year-old woman presents with worsening renal and hepatic function. Relevant risk context includes high illness severity. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ventilator-associated pneumonia concern B. Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU C. Acute respiratory distress syndrome D. Septic shock E. Cardiac tamponade after trauma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of worsening renal and hepatic function with risk factors such as high illness severity is most consistent with Severe diabetic ketoacidosis in ICU. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Intensive Care. Reference: Surviving Sepsis Campaign Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 28 of 40 Next → »