Internal Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 10:10 Page 16 of 40 Attempt #2579 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 76 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 66-year-old man presents with orthopnea with bibasal crackles. Relevant risk context includes gallstone disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Acute biliary pancreatitis C. Complicated community-acquired pneumonia D. Decompensated heart failure E. Diabetic ketoacidosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of orthopnea with bibasal crackles with risk factors such as gallstone disease is most consistent with Acute kidney injury. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: AHA/ACC and ESC disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 77 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 26-year-old man is evaluated for oliguria with rising creatinine in the context of NSAID exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated B. ABG with lactate C. Blood and site cultures when infection suspected D. CBC and inflammatory markers E. Comprehensive metabolic panel Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: ABG with lactate is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Internal Medicine. Reference: AHA/ACC and ESC disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 78 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 73-year-old woman is evaluated for oliguria with rising creatinine in the context of ischemic heart disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated B. Targeted imaging for source diagnosis C. CBC and inflammatory markers D. ABG with lactate E. Comprehensive metabolic panel Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Internal Medicine. Reference: AHA/ACC and ESC disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 79 / 200 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 47-year-old man is evaluated for polyuria with high anion gap acidosis in the context of advanced age. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Blood and site cultures when infection suspected B. ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated C. CBC and inflammatory markers D. ABG with lactate E. Targeted imaging for source diagnosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Internal Medicine. Reference: IDSA and ATS infectious disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 80 / 200 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 80-year-old man is evaluated for epigastric pain radiating to back with elevated lipase in the context of ischemic heart disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. ABG with lactate B. Comprehensive metabolic panel C. Blood and site cultures when infection suspected D. ECG with cardiac biomarkers when indicated E. Targeted imaging for source diagnosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: ABG with lactate is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Internal Medicine. Reference: ACG and ADA contemporary guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 16 of 40 Next → »