Internal Medicine Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 21:02 Page 2 of 40 Attempt #935 Overall: 0 / 200 questions answered Question 6 / 200 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 69-year-old woman presents with oliguria with rising creatinine. Relevant risk context includes chronic multimorbidity. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Complicated community-acquired pneumonia B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Acute kidney injury D. Acute biliary pancreatitis E. Acute upper GI bleeding Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of oliguria with rising creatinine with risk factors such as chronic multimorbidity is most consistent with Diabetic ketoacidosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: IDSA and ATS infectious disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 7 / 200 Not answered During ward handover: a 32-year-old woman presents with melena with hemodynamic instability. Relevant risk context includes ischemic heart disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Complicated community-acquired pneumonia C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Acute biliary pancreatitis E. Acute upper GI bleeding Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of melena with hemodynamic instability with risk factors such as ischemic heart disease is most consistent with Acute biliary pancreatitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: IDSA and ATS infectious disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 8 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 68-year-old man is evaluated for oliguria with rising creatinine in the context of ischemic heart disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. CBC and inflammatory markers B. ABG with lactate C. Blood and site cultures when infection suspected D. Comprehensive metabolic panel E. Targeted imaging for source diagnosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Blood and site cultures when infection suspected is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Internal Medicine. Reference: ACP and Society of Hospital Medicine guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 9 / 200 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 75-year-old man has epigastric pain radiating to back with elevated lipase with risk profile of poor diabetes control. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based inpatient antimicrobial strategy when indicated B. Guideline-directed chronic disease optimization C. VTE prophylaxis and supportive inpatient care D. Structured discharge and follow-up planning E. Early specialist escalation for organ dysfunction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Structured discharge and follow-up planning is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Internal Medicine. Reference: AHA/ACC and ESC disease guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 10 / 200 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 77-year-old woman presents with orthopnea with bibasal crackles. Relevant risk context includes advanced age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute biliary pancreatitis B. Acute upper GI bleeding C. Acute kidney injury D. Decompensated heart failure E. Complicated community-acquired pneumonia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of orthopnea with bibasal crackles with risk factors such as advanced age is most consistent with Decompensated heart failure. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Internal Medicine. Reference: ACG and ADA contemporary guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 2 of 40 Next → »