Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:21 Page 49 of 57 Attempt #1967 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 241 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 42-year-old woman is evaluated for optic neuritis with sensory deficits in the context of vascular risk factors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRI brain with diffusion B. Non-contrast CT brain C. EEG D. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease E. CT angiography head and neck Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: EEG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 242 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 44-year-old man is evaluated for optic neuritis with sensory deficits in the context of family history of epilepsy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lumbar puncture when indicated B. EEG C. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease D. Non-contrast CT brain E. CT angiography head and neck Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 243 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 51-year-old woman is evaluated for recurrent stereotyped focal events in the context of hypertension. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease B. Non-contrast CT brain C. Lumbar puncture when indicated D. CT angiography head and neck E. MRI brain with diffusion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: CT angiography head and neck is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 244 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 37-year-old woman has sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia with risk profile of atrial fibrillation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway B. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS C. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis D. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment E. Early neurorehabilitation planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 245 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 30-year-old man presents with recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia. Relevant risk context includes vascular risk factors. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Multiple sclerosis C. Focal epilepsy D. Myasthenia gravis E. Acute ischemic stroke Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia with risk factors such as vascular risk factors is most consistent with Multiple sclerosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 49 of 57 Next → »