Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 02:35 Page 51 of 57 Attempt #1719 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 251 / 284 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 68-year-old man is evaluated for recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia in the context of vascular risk factors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRI brain with diffusion B. EEG C. Non-contrast CT brain D. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease E. Lumbar puncture when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Non-contrast CT brain is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 252 / 284 Not answered During morning rounds: a 80-year-old man has optic neuritis with sensory deficits with risk profile of family history of epilepsy. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis B. Appropriate antiseizure medication C. Early neurorehabilitation planning D. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment E. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 253 / 284 Not answered During morning rounds: a 71-year-old woman presents with thunderclap headache. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Myasthenia gravis D. Migraine with aura E. Focal epilepsy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of thunderclap headache with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Multiple sclerosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 254 / 284 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 74-year-old man presents with fatigable ptosis with diplopia. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune background. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute ischemic stroke B. Focal epilepsy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage E. Myasthenia gravis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of fatigable ptosis with diplopia with risk factors such as autoimmune background is most consistent with Acute ischemic stroke. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 255 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 79-year-old man has sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment B. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS C. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis D. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway E. Early neurorehabilitation planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Early neurorehabilitation planning is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 51 of 57 Next → »