Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 21:04 Page 57 of 57 Attempt #971 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 281 / 284 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 42-year-old man presents with recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia. Relevant risk context includes atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Migraine with aura C. Myasthenia gravis D. Acute ischemic stroke E. Multiple sclerosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of recurrent pulsatile headache with photophobia with risk factors such as atrial fibrillation is most consistent with Subarachnoid hemorrhage. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 282 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 29-year-old woman has recurrent stereotyped focal events with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway B. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS C. Early neurorehabilitation planning D. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor-based symptomatic treatment E. Appropriate antiseizure medication Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 283 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 68-year-old man is evaluated for optic neuritis with sensory deficits in the context of hypertension. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease B. CT angiography head and neck C. Lumbar puncture when indicated D. MRI brain with diffusion E. EEG Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: EEG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 284 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 42-year-old woman is evaluated for sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia in the context of family history of epilepsy. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. MRI brain with diffusion B. EEG C. Autoantibody panel for neuromuscular disease D. Non-contrast CT brain E. Lumbar puncture when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Non-contrast CT brain is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 57 of 57 Submit Exam