Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 09:07 Page 15 of 55 Attempt #2486 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 71 / 274 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 66-year-old woman has generalized edema with heavy proteinuria with risk profile of long-standing hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy B. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol C. Blood pressure optimization in CKD D. Volume status-guided AKI management E. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 72 / 274 Not answered A 65-year-old with acute kidney injury has serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dL and potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. What is the most urgent intervention needed? A. Fluid resuscitation B. Dialysis C. Intravenous calcium gluconate D. Furosemide E. Blood transfusion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Intravenous calcium gluconate stabilizes the myocardium and is the most urgent intervention for severe hyperkalemia to prevent cardiac arrhythmias. Reference: Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 73 / 274 Not answered A 55-year-old diabetic patient with CKD stage 3b has albuminuria. Which medication is most beneficial for slowing disease progression? A. Thiazide diuretics B. Calcium channel blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Beta-blockers E. NSAIDs Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure and proteinuria in diabetic nephropathy and are recommended for all diabetic patients with albuminuria. Reference: Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 74 / 274 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 54-year-old woman is evaluated for generalized edema with heavy proteinuria in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Renal ultrasound B. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio C. Urinalysis with microscopy D. Serum potassium with ECG E. Kidney biopsy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Renal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 75 / 274 Not answered A 55-year-old diabetic with GFR 45 mL/min and albuminuria. Most appropriate management: A. Stop all medications B. Intensive glycemic control and ACE inhibitor C. NSAIDs for proteinuria D. Rapid GFR decline is acceptable E. Dietary protein increase Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: ACE inhibitors slow progression of diabetic nephropathy and should be used in all diabetic patients with albuminuria. Reference: Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 15 of 55 Next → »