Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 05:17 Page 46 of 55 Attempt #2058 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 226 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 78-year-old woman presents with hydronephrosis with post-void retention. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Obstructive uropathy B. Chronic kidney disease progression C. Hyperkalemic emergency D. Acute kidney injury E. Nephrotic syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of hydronephrosis with post-void retention with risk factors such as autoimmune disease is most consistent with Hyperkalemic emergency. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 227 / 274 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 49-year-old man presents with oliguria with rising creatinine. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Hyperkalemic emergency B. Obstructive uropathy C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis E. Acute kidney injury Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of oliguria with rising creatinine with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Nephrotic syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 228 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 66-year-old man has hydronephrosis with post-void retention with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Blood pressure optimization in CKD B. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy C. Volume status-guided AKI management D. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications E. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Volume status-guided AKI management is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 229 / 274 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 41-year-old woman has uremic symptoms with risk profile of volume depletion. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Blood pressure optimization in CKD B. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications C. Volume status-guided AKI management D. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol E. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Blood pressure optimization in CKD is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 230 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 81-year-old woman presents with muscle weakness with peaked T waves. Relevant risk context includes long-standing hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Hyperkalemic emergency C. Chronic kidney disease progression D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis E. Obstructive uropathy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk factors such as long-standing hypertension is most consistent with Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 46 of 55 Next → »