Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 23:41 Page 52 of 55 Attempt #1362 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 256 / 274 Not answered During ward handover: a 41-year-old man presents with oliguria with rising creatinine. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Hyperkalemic emergency B. Chronic kidney disease progression C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome E. Obstructive uropathy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of oliguria with rising creatinine with risk factors such as autoimmune disease is most consistent with Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 257 / 274 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 80-year-old woman has muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk profile of prostatic enlargement. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Volume status-guided AKI management B. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy C. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications D. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol E. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Volume status-guided AKI management is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 258 / 274 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 35-year-old man has hydronephrosis with post-void retention with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Blood pressure optimization in CKD B. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy C. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol D. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications E. Volume status-guided AKI management Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 259 / 274 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 78-year-old man presents with hematuria with RBC casts. Relevant risk context includes prostatic enlargement. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis B. Hyperkalemic emergency C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Chronic kidney disease progression E. Obstructive uropathy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of hematuria with RBC casts with risk factors such as prostatic enlargement is most consistent with Hyperkalemic emergency. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: ASN/ERA Position Statements Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 260 / 274 Not answered During ward handover: a 25-year-old man presents with generalized edema with heavy proteinuria. Relevant risk context includes prostatic enlargement. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Chronic kidney disease progression B. Acute kidney injury C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome E. Hyperkalemic emergency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of generalized edema with heavy proteinuria with risk factors such as prostatic enlargement is most consistent with Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 52 of 55 Next → »