Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:18 Page 49 of 57 Attempt #1946 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 241 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: a 69-year-old woman is evaluated for proximal myopathy with striae in the context of long-term steroid exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Pituitary MRI when indicated B. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test C. Morning cortisol with ACTH D. Serum calcium and PTH E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Pituitary MRI when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 242 / 283 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 56-year-old woman has polyuria with weight loss with risk profile of long-term steroid exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause B. Individualized glucose-lowering plan C. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration D. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction E. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 243 / 283 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 34-year-old woman presents with orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation. Relevant risk context includes postpartum thyroid risk. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary adrenal insufficiency B. Cushing syndrome C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Graves disease E. Primary hypothyroidism Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation with risk factors such as postpartum thyroid risk is most consistent with Graves disease. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 244 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 24-year-old woman presents with fatigue with cold intolerance. Relevant risk context includes family endocrine history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cushing syndrome B. Primary hypothyroidism C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Graves disease E. Primary hyperparathyroidism Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with cold intolerance with risk factors such as family endocrine history is most consistent with Primary hypothyroidism. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 245 / 283 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 29-year-old woman presents with polyuria with weight loss. Relevant risk context includes long-term steroid exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Graves disease B. Primary hypothyroidism C. Primary hyperparathyroidism D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Primary adrenal insufficiency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with weight loss with risk factors such as long-term steroid exposure is most consistent with Graves disease. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 49 of 57 Next → »