Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 02:28 Page 8 of 57 Attempt #1671 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 36 / 283 Not answered Question 64: During preoperative assessment: A patient has cortisol excess, suppressed ACTH, and adrenal mass. What is the likely category? A. Pituitary Cushing disease B. Ectopic ACTH syndrome C. Primary adrenal insufficiency D. ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome E. Pheochromocytoma only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Endocrinology] High cortisol with suppressed ACTH indicates ACTH-independent adrenal cortisol production. Reference: Endocrine Society Cushing Syndrome Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 37 / 283 Not answered Question 65: During preoperative assessment: A 30-year-old woman has galactorrhea, amenorrhea, and prolactin 180 ng/mL. Pregnancy test is negative. What is the appropriate next evaluation? A. Start estrogen without workup B. Ignore prolactin if amenorrhea is present C. Adrenal CT first in all patients D. Diagnose menopause E. Review drugs and check TSH, then pituitary MRI if persistent elevation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Endocrinology] Hyperprolactinemia evaluation includes pregnancy exclusion, medication review, TSH, and pituitary imaging for persistent unexplained elevation. Reference: Endocrine Society Hyperprolactinemia Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 38 / 283 Not answered Question 66: At a preventive-care consultation: A 45-year-old woman has HbA1c 8.4% despite lifestyle measures. She has obesity and eGFR 90. What is first-line pharmacologic therapy unless contraindicated? A. Metformin B. Insulin only for all patients C. Glibenclamide mandatory first D. Levothyroxine E. Hydrocortisone Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Endocrinology] Metformin is generally first-line for type 2 diabetes when tolerated and not contraindicated, alongside lifestyle. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes 2026. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 39 / 283 Not answered Question 67: At a preventive-care consultation: A 21-year-old has polyuria, weight loss, ketones, glucose 24 mmol/L, pH 7.21, and bicarbonate 12 mmol/L. What is the diagnosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. SIADH D. Diabetes insipidus only E. Hypoglycemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Endocrinology] Hyperglycemia, ketones, and metabolic acidosis diagnose DKA. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes 2026; JBDS DKA Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 40 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: A patient has cortisol excess, suppressed ACTH, and adrenal mass. What is the likely category? A. Pituitary Cushing disease B. Ectopic ACTH syndrome C. Primary adrenal insufficiency D. ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome E. Pheochromocytoma only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Endocrinology] High cortisol with suppressed ACTH indicates ACTH-independent adrenal cortisol production. Reference: Endocrine Society Cushing Syndrome Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 8 of 57 Next → »